Could Paul have conceived of healthy, homosexual monogamy? Are Paul's remarks moral proclamations for all time, or the understandably frustrated anti-Roman spite of a politicized first-century Jewish thinker? Does Paul see homosexuality as a symbol of vulgar Roman extravagance? Is there really a heteronormative agenda at work? What does Paul mean when he writes "In Christ there is no male or female"?
Does Paul see homosexuality itself as sin? Does Paul see anything as sin? Does he distinguish "sin" from morally-neutral behaviors? Or is "sin" (to Paul) everything and nothing? Isn't Paul also antagonistic to heterosexual behavior? Does Paul sympathetically characterize homosexuality as a malaise from which people must be saved?
Does the burden of proof fall on me, or on those who claim that homosexuality is sin? If these people appeal to the Levitical code, is their reading selective? What are the assumptions upon which their belief is based?
Don't we have to agree on a few sweeping assumptions before the conversation can move forward? How can I have this conversation with someone if I don't share their view that scripture is inerrant?
Doesn't Jesus himself stand up for the dignity of marginalized people against the moral presumption of the pious?
Can the Spirit of the law be separated from its letter? Are we bound by rules for which we are unprepared?
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